0 Comments
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
Since both terms are perfect squares, factor using the difference of squares formula, a ^2 − b^2 =( a + b ) ( a − b ) where a = x and b = 4 . ( x + 4 ) ( x − 4 )
hopes this helps
no, if you plug in 1 for x, you get 1-16=-15 which is not a perfect square