asked 209k views
3 votes
If cos theta=0 then sec theta=0, true or false?

asked
User Svlada
by
9.0k points

2 Answers

6 votes

Answer:

False, the guy above is right.

Explanation:

In math, it's usually considered as "Undefined."

We can easily be confused, because -1/0 might look like it's 0.

However, we must know that n OVER 0 is undefined.

answered
User Robbie Matthews
by
7.7k points
3 votes

Answer:

False

Explanation:


\because \sec \theta = (1)/( \cos \theta) \\ \therefore \sec \theta = (1)/(0) \\ \therefore \sec \theta = \infty \:

answered
User RobertoFRey
by
7.7k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.