asked 20.0k views
3 votes
A 35 year old factory worker presents for eval of pain in his left arm. He denies any acute trauma or injury. His job involves inspecting jars and he has to test the opening and closing of the jar lids. He denies fever or chills. On exam there is no swelling over the elbow. You palpate the olecranon process, and he has tenderness on the left lateral epicondyle but not on the medial epicondyle. What is your most likely diagnosis?

a) olecranon bursitis
b) osteoarthritis
c) lateral epicondrylitis
d) epicondylar fracture

asked
User Sarang
by
8.0k points

2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

a) olecranon bursitis

Step-by-step explanation:

A - In elbow but most times does not cause pain.

B- In any joints, such as neck.

C- In elbow, called tennis elbow at most times does contain swelling and pain.

D- In elbow (but consists of dislocation)

answered
User Lozflan
by
8.8k points
4 votes

Answer:

I would go with C) lateral epicondylitis

Step-by-step explanation:

answered
User Marco Guerri
by
8.1k points
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