Register

WHY WAS SLAVERY LESS PREVELANT IN NORTHERN COLONIES

WHY WAS SLAVERY LESS PREVELANT IN NORTHERN COLONIES
asked 206k views
1 vote
WHY WAS SLAVERY LESS PREVELANT IN NORTHERN COLONIES

asked
User Gilad Peleg
by
8.1k points

2 Answers

6 votes

Step-by-step explanation:

The small farms of the northern colonies did not need slaves.....

answered
User Seth Moore
by
8.3k points
5 votes

Answer:

the small farms of the northern colonies did not need slaves.

answered
User Sujit Baniya
by
7.6k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

Related questions

User Zathrus
asked Apr 2, 2022 43.0k views
Why was slavery more prevelant in the West Indies and the Southern and Chesapeake colonies?
Zathrus asked Apr 2, 2022
by Zathrus
8.5k points
1 answer
4 votes
43.0k views
User Ceisc
asked Aug 6, 2023 147k views
Come up with a list of the 5 most prevelant forms of deviance that you can think of.
Ceisc asked Aug 6, 2023
by Ceisc
7.6k points
1 answer
5 votes
147k views
Ask a Question
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.

Categories

Other Questions

is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
Link Copied!