Presumably you've proven exercise 6, that the Laplace transform of 
 is
 is 
 .
.
Let F(s) = 1/s, whose inverse Laplace transform is f(t) = 1. Differentiate F with respect to s :

By the claim from ex.6, this is the Laplace transform of t • f(t) = t.
Differentiate F again with respect to s :

and this is the Laplace transform of t² • f(t) = t². And so on.
We can prove the general claim by induction. Assume it's true for n = k, that 
 . Then using the result of ex.6, we have
. Then using the result of ex.6, we have

QED