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Benjamin believes that (1)/(2)% is equivalent to 50%. is he correct? why or why not?

Benjamin believes that (1)/(2)% is equivalent to 50%. is he correct? why or why not?
asked 77.6k views
1 vote
Benjamin believes that
(1)/(2)% is equivalent to 50%. is he correct? why or why not?

asked
User Kojot
by
8.0k points

1 Answer

3 votes

First, we convert 1/2% to a decimal.


(1)/(2)\%=(0.5)/(100)=0.005

Similarly:


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answered
User Rohan Pujari
by
8.5k points
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