asked 5.3k views
4 votes
Are the expressions equivalent 8 ÷ 2 and 2 ÷ 8 & why

asked
User BeNdErR
by
7.5k points

1 Answer

1 vote

Firstly, lets look at the result of the two expressions

8 / 2 = 4

and

2 / 8 = 1 / 4

looking at the results, they are different, therefore they are not equivalent

The answer is No.

And the reason is that both expresions give different results

answered
User Axiverse
by
8.6k points

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