Question

A 20-year-old male presents with a mass in the groin. On examination with the patient standing, a mass is noted that extends into the scrotum. The patient denies any trauma. The most likely diagnosis is A. Indirect inguinal hernia. B. Direct inguinal hernia. C. Obturator hernia. D. Femoral hernia.

Answer 1

The most likely diagnosis in this case would be an indirect inguinal hernia.

An indirect inguinal hernia is when the hernia passes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall and protrudes into the inguinal canal. In this case, the patient has a mass that extends into the scrotum, which is located in the inguinal area, and he denies any trauma or other cause for the hernia.

The other options such as a direct inguinal hernia, obturator hernia, or femoral hernia are not usually seen in this location, and are thus not likely to be the correct diagnosis.