asked 191k views
4 votes
A bag contains 4 red marbles and 2 white marbles. A marble is selected, kept out of the bag, and then another marble is selected. What is P(red, then white)?

A) 2/5
B) 4/15
C) 1/3
D) 2/9

asked
User Jerboa
by
8.7k points

1 Answer

6 votes

Final answer:

To calculate the probability of drawing a red and then a white marble from the bag without replacement, multiply the probability of each event occurring sequentially. The probability is 1/3.

Step-by-step explanation:

The student is asking about the probability of drawing a red marble and then a white marble from a bag that contains a mix of red and white marbles. This type of problem is solved using the concepts of probability without replacement. Since there are initially 4 red marbles and 2 white marbles, the probability of drawing a red marble first is ¼ (since there are 4 red out of 6 total marbles).

After a red marble is drawn and kept aside, there are now 3 red marbles and 2 white marbles left in the bag, making a total of 5 marbles. The probability of then drawing a white marble is ½ (since there are 2 white out of 5 marbles left). To find the combined probability of both events happening in sequence (drawing a red and then a white marble), we multiply the probabilities of the individual events: ½ * ½ = ⅓.

Therefore, the correct answer is C) 1/3, which is the probability of drawing a red marble followed by a white marble when one marble is drawn and kept out of the bag before drawing the second marble.

answered
User Ravinda Lakshan
by
9.1k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.