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Cullen said that multiplying a fraction by a fraction equivalent to 1 always results in a fraction that has the same value as the original fraction. Is he correct?

Cullen said that multiplying a fraction by a fraction equivalent to 1 always results in a fraction that has the same value as the original fraction. Is he correct?
asked 20.8k views
9 votes
Cullen said that multiplying a fraction by a fraction equivalent to 1 always results in a fraction that has the same value as the original fraction. Is he correct?

asked
User Evan Bloemer
by
8.0k points

1 Answer

5 votes
Yes. Any number times 1 has no change in value.

Ex:
3/3 * 1/1 = 3/3
because 3x1 = 3
answered
User Martin Hauner
by
8.2k points
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