asked 183k views
2 votes
In humans, having freckles is the result of a dominant gene, and not having freckles is a recessive trait. If a freckled man who is homozygous for this trait has a child with a woman who does not have freckles, which of the following best describes how their child would most likely appear?

A. Their child would not have freckles if the father passes on the recessive allele.
B. Their child would have freckles.
C. Their child would not have freckles.
D. Their child would have freckles since the mother is a carrier for freckles.
Can someone explain this for me ?

asked
User Jarema
by
8.1k points

2 Answers

3 votes
Its b because if you cross FF(freckles) and ff (no freckles) using punnet square or any method you will get 100% Ff . Since its recesive Ff means having freckles so the answer is b their child would have freckles
answered
User Cristopher
by
8.2k points
4 votes
The answer is C. Draw a Punnett square.
answered
User Colleen
by
8.9k points
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