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The value of deadweight loss for a perfect price discriminator is _____ an imperfect price discriminator.

asked
User DeanLa
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1 Answer

3 votes
The answer is none, it is because there is no dead weight loss for perfect price discriminator, even if there is no surplus that existed in which is different from the imperfect price discriminator as it does not apply the same as the perfect price discriminator.
answered
User Madan Ram
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