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Why did Thomas Jefferson refer to the election of 1800 as the “Revolution of 1800”?

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User Uffe
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I am pretty sure that he did that because the 1700s just ended and that he was president.
3 votes

Answer:

D.

The Electoral College votes ended up in a tie

Step-by-step explanation:

I have done this post test for the new nation on edementum

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User Krychu
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