asked 199k views
1 vote
Is it true that -a^n = (-a)^n IF:

a = 3;
n = 2, 3, 4, 5?

asked
User Sstan
by
7.6k points

1 Answer

2 votes
No, it is not true

Because (-a)^n some times gives a^n (with even powers) and other times gives -a^n (with odd powers)

But - a^n always gives negative!
answered
User Abir Taheer
by
7.7k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.