asked 120k views
0 votes
The inverse of a function is a function?

asked
User Yet
by
8.9k points

1 Answer

5 votes

yes because you do the opposite so it would not be a function

answered
User Ashraf Tawfeeq
by
8.6k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.