asked 140k views
1 vote
Pleas help me!! I rlly need the answer! And I don't understand this one bit!

Pleas help me!! I rlly need the answer! And I don't understand this one bit!-example-1

1 Answer

3 votes
The value for all of the fractions are 1. This is because both the numerator and denominator are equal. When they are equal, they divide perfectly into each other, making the value 1. Another was of checking the is by multiplying the numerator by 1 and seeing if the denominator will be the same, which is a yes in this case.
answered
User Alberto Segundo
by
8.3k points

Related questions

1 answer
0 votes
186k views
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.