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Is the mean value theorem for integrals the same as the mean value thoerem for derivatives?

Is the mean value theorem for integrals the same as the mean value thoerem for derivatives?
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Is the mean value theorem for integrals the same as the mean value thoerem for derivatives?

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User Eldarien
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2 Answers

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Answer:

a^2 + b^2 =C^2

Explanation:

answered
User Indranil Sarkar
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Yes. The two theorems are equivalent statements given that the fundamental theorem of calculus is true.
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User Jason Horner
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