asked 36.3k views
2 votes
When, in the 1770s, King George III arbitrarily vetoed laws passed by colonial legislatures, then dissolved those legislatures altogether without the agreement of colonial citizens, he was removing which of the rights of the people

asked
User Giusy
by
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2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

Consent to be governed

Step-by-step explanation:

I put free speech and it said it was wrong and it told me consent to be governed was right so I hope this helps

answered
User Transhuman
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7.8k points
4 votes

He was removing the right of the people to have a say in their government.

By getting rid of colonial legislatures and vetoing laws, King George III was abusing his power as King. He was going against the will of the people and took away their ability to influence government actions. In other words, the colonists were no longer being properly represented by their government. This would be one of many problems that the colonists encountered when dealing with King George III. Ultimately, these problems would lead to the United States declaring independence from Great Britain.

answered
User David Ravetti
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7.6k points
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