asked 15.2k views
0 votes
7⁄8 = ?⁄48 A. 1 B. 42 C. 13 D. 6

asked
User Lanan
by
8.5k points

2 Answers

1 vote
42 because 6•8 is 48 so you would multiply 6 and 7 getting 42
answered
User Sovanlandy
by
8.6k points
2 votes

The answer is (B) 42 because 8 times 6 = 48 and 7 times 6 is also equal to 42

answered
User Tominator
by
7.2k points

Related questions

asked Oct 5, 2017 199k views
Lordhong asked Oct 5, 2017
by Lordhong
7.9k points
1 answer
0 votes
199k views
2 answers
2 votes
32.1k views
1 answer
0 votes
176k views
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.