asked 138k views
3 votes
Why did Great Britain and France appease Hitler

asked
User Kiley
by
7.9k points

2 Answers

1 vote

Answer:

hitler threatend war and from my understanding britain and france were in a war recently but not with eachother

Step-by-step explanation:

if i am wrong forgive me.

answered
User Nikhil Unni
by
8.0k points
2 votes

Answer:

i think because hitler threatened war

Step-by-step explanation:

In 1938, Germans living in the border areas of Czechoslovakia (the Sudetenland) started to demand a union with Hitler's Germany. The Czechs refused and Hitler threatened war. On 30 September during the Munich Agreement - without asking Czechoslovakia - Britain and France gave the Sudetenland to Germany. hope it helps

answered
User Mouser
by
7.7k points
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