Question

The demand for one of X Company’s products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment that originally cost $1,300,000 and has a carrying value of $720,000. As of the current date, December 31, 20X2, it is expected that only an additional 400,000 units are likely to be sold over the remaining life of the equipment. Each unit sells for $3 and has a manufacturing cost of $1.50. Relevant information as of December 31, 20X2: The undiscounted future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment is expected to be $600,000. The present value of the future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment, calculated at the company’s cost of capital, is $475,000. The equipment has a fair value of $490,000 on the date of evaluation. How much of an impairment loss will X Company recognize in 20X2?

Answer 1

Answer: $230,000

Step-by-step explanation:

In our case,

Undiscounted future cash inflows from the sale of the product = $ 600,000 and

Carrying value of the asset = $ 720,000.

We can come to a conclusion that the benefit we get from the sale of the asset is less that carrying value.

Hence, the asset is said to be impaired.

Therefore,

Impairment Loss = Carrying value - Fair value of the asset

= 720,000 - 490,000

= $230,000.