asked 128k views
1 vote
Apple products have become a household name in America with 51% of all households owning at least one Apple product (CNN, March 19, 2012). The likelihood of owning an Apple product is 61% for households with kids and 48% for households without kids. Suppose there are 1,200 households in a representative community, of which 820 are with kids and the rest are without kids. Are the events "household with kids" and "household without kids" mutually exclusive and exhaustive?

asked
User Totati
by
8.2k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer: It is mutually exclusive and exhaustive.

Explanation:

Since we have given that

Owns apple No apple Total

With kids 500.2 319.8 820

Without kids 182.4 197.6 380

Total 682.6 517.4 1200

P(Households without kids) =
(380)/(1200)=0.316

P(Households with kids) =
(820)/(1200)=0.683

And P(A∪B) = 0.316+0.683 = 0.999 ≈ 1

Since the two event are disjoint so, the probability of both occurring is 0 and the probability of either occurring is the sum of each occurring.

Hence, it is mutually exclusive and exhaustive.

answered
User NoviceToDotNet
by
8.0k points
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