asked 72.5k views
3 votes
Why did white Southern Democrats

disenfranchise black men?
A. They feared the consequences of
African Americans having political
power.
O
B. They hoped African Americans would
leave the South after being denied
rights.
O
C. They wanted to encourage literacy
among formerly enslaved African
Americans.
O
D. They worried that African Americans
would dismantle Republican
governments.

2 Answers

4 votes

Answer: The Industrialization and the Gilded Age Test

Answer:

1. A

2. A, D

3. A

4. C

5. D

6. --

7. A, C

8. --

9. --

10. D

11. A, E

12. D

13. D

14. B

15. A

16. B

17. C

18. D

19. B

20. D

21. C

22. Laissez-faire: supported lack of government intervention in business affairs

Interstate Commerce Act: Regulated railroads

Sherman Anti-trust Act: banned business practices that supported monopolies

23. D

24. C

25. A

26. A

27. A

28. D

29. D

30. C

Step-by-step explanation:

answered
User Peaceful James
by
8.5k points
1 vote

Answer:

A. They feared the consequences of African Americans having political power.

Step-by-step explanation:

To disenfranchise means to take away a person's right to vote. This was always an issue with African Americans during the Reconstruction. The Southern Democrats were worried that giving the African Americans the right to vote would encourage their participation in politics, which would in turn challenge their political strategies and policies. The Democrats did everything they could to prevent black men from registering to vote despite the fact that the 15th Amendment gave them suffrage.

answered
User Mayling
by
8.3k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.