asked 139k views
1 vote
Which is a counterexample to the following conjecture?

If a number is divisible by 2, it must also be divisible by 4.


A. 16


B.24


C. 22


D. 8

asked
User Gijs
by
8.3k points

2 Answers

4 votes

C is the ........ answer

answered
User ZakS
by
9.4k points
4 votes

The answer would be C. 22 bc all the other numbers are divisible by 2 and 4

answered
User Surega
by
8.8k points
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