asked 211k views
5 votes
Lim x--> 0 (e^x(sinx)(tax))/x^2

asked
User Psquared
by
8.3k points

1 Answer

7 votes

Make use of the known limit,


\displaystyle\lim_(x\to0)\frac{\sin x}x=1

We have


\displaystyle\lim_(x\to0)(e^x\sin x\tan x)/(x^2)=\left(\lim_(x\to0)(e^x)/(\cos x)\right)\left(\lim_(x\to0)(\sin^2x)/(x^2)\right)

since
\tan x=(\sin x)/(\cos x), and the limit of a product is the same as the product of limits.


(e^x)/(\cos x) is continuous at
x=0, and
(e^0)/(\cos 0)=1. The remaining limit is also 1, since


\displaystyle\lim_(x\to0)(\sin^2x)/(x^2)=\left(\lim_(x\to0)\frac{\sin x}x\right)^2=1^2=1

so the overall limit is 1.

answered
User Raekye
by
8.6k points
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