asked 175k views
5 votes
After Britain had industrialized, other nations attempted to do the same. France had some success, but it was quickly surpassed by Germany. Which of these was a reason that Germany had more success industrializing than France?

A.
Germany was more interested in industrializing.
B.
Germany had access to more industrial resources.
C.
Germany had a more democratic government.
D.
Germany had more area of land.

2 Answers

2 votes

The most reasonable answer i'd say is B....

answered
User Parisni
by
7.6k points
2 votes

I am thinking is B ...

answered
User Tom Robinson
by
8.1k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.