asked 27.2k views
13 votes
172% of 50 is what number?

2 Answers

8 votes

Answer:

86

Explanation:

172% of 50

First, find 1% of 50 (in other words, 1/100 x 50) = 0.5

then, multiply 0.5 by 172 = 86

So, 172% of 50 = 86

This makes sense, because 100% of 50 = 50. So, 172% of 50 is going to be more than 50, but less than 100 (200%).

Hope this helps!

- profparis

answered
User Somallg
by
7.9k points
11 votes

Answer:

172% of 50 means 172÷100 multiplied by 50 will give you 86

answered
User Bjmc
by
9.3k points

Related questions

asked Apr 21, 2024 113k views
Almenon asked Apr 21, 2024
by Almenon
7.6k points
1 answer
1 vote
113k views
asked Nov 24, 2016 136k views
Leonardo Rick asked Nov 24, 2016
by Leonardo Rick
8.0k points
2 answers
0 votes
136k views
asked Apr 4, 2018 54.5k views
Sterin asked Apr 4, 2018
by Sterin
8.1k points
2 answers
3 votes
54.5k views
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.