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4 votes
A simple answer and a graph for Short Run Profits and Short Run Losses please

Explain how perfectly competitive firms experiencing short run profits or losses eventually experience zero economic profit in the long run

2 Answers

6 votes
The last one will be the right answer
answered
User Skylar
by
8.2k points
5 votes

Answer:

Which of the following inequalities is equivalent to 1 ≥ x?

x ≥ 1

x ≤ -1

x ≥ -1

x ≤ 1

Step-by-step explanation:

answered
User Ivan Vorobei
by
8.2k points

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