asked 184k views
4 votes
does anyone know the answer with an explanation ? if there’s no explanation then it’s fine i rly appreciate it !!

does anyone know the answer with an explanation ? if there’s no explanation then it-example-1

1 Answer

7 votes

Answer: Colonial Trade

Explanation: I think colonial trade because it sounds like the ships could be used for exporting goods throughout Europe meaning britian could have gotten wealthy through trading valuable items.

answered
User Darkiron
by
7.9k points
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.