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Given ABC~DEF and DEF~JKL is ABC~JKL?

Given ABC~DEF and DEF~JKL is ABC~JKL?
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1 vote
Given ABC~DEF and DEF~JKL is ABC~JKL?

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User Whatsisname
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8.6k points

1 Answer

2 votes
Answer: yes

Explanation: because of the transitive property of congruency.
answered
User Pazcal
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