Register

Does a country ever have a right to dominate/imperialize another country? Why? Please and thank you!

Does a country ever have a right to dominate/imperialize another country? Why? Please and thank you!
asked 46.6k views
0 votes
Does a country ever have a right to dominate/imperialize another country? Why?

Please and thank you!

asked
User Kepotx
by
8.0k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

yes if the country surrenders

Step-by-step explanation:

answered
User Jokin
by
8.4k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

Related questions

User Epaga
asked Aug 20, 2024 76.5k views
Why didn't America imperialize eastward?
Epaga asked Aug 20, 2024
by Epaga
7.8k points
1 answer
5 votes
76.5k views
User Kefs
asked Sep 10, 2024 156k views
Which countries did the US directly or indirectly imperialize between the years 1890- 1934? S
Kefs asked Sep 10, 2024
by Kefs
7.7k points
1 answer
1 vote
156k views
User Natalie Adams
asked Dec 1, 2024 51.5k views
Why did Europeans want to imperialize?
Natalie Adams asked Dec 1, 2024
by Natalie Adams
7.8k points
1 answer
3 votes
51.5k views
Ask a Question
Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.

Categories

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
Link Copied!