asked 86.5k views
5 votes
Why is x=f(y) the inverse of f(x)?

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

in finding the inverse of an equation, you just switch x and y, so f(x)=y becomes f(y)=x

answered
User TheoretiCAL
by
8.4k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.