Question

Dusan says that ∆XYZ ~ ∆TUV because two pairs of angles are congruent. Is he correct? If not, why? Yes, he is correct. No, because two pairs of congruent angles cannot prove similarity. No, because the third angle measure cannot be determined. No, because there is only one set of congruent angles.

Answer 1

D

Explanation:

Answer 2

No, because there is only one set of congruent angles.

Explanation:

I took the instruction, and this was the right answer!