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When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 (x+1)²dx and not integral from 1 to 2 (x)²dx?

When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 (x+1)²dx and not integral from 1 to 2 (x)²dx?
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When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 (x+1)²dx and not integral from 1 to 2 (x)²dx?

When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral-example-1
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User Archeg
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1 Answer

7 votes

Explanation:

You are correct, it should either be ∫₁² (x)² dx or ∫₀¹ (x+1)² dx.

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User BeauXjames
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