asked 26.8k views
4 votes
2^5*2^3/4^4 plz answer

asked
User HLP
by
8.2k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

1

Explanation:

Because they both of the same base, we can merge 2^5 and 2^3 into one term: 2^8 (2^(3+5))

4 is = 2^2 so we can change 4^4 to 2^8.

(2^(2*4)).

Thia means we now have 2^8/2^8 which is 1.

As anything divided by itself is just 1.

Hope this helped!

answered
User Ivaylo Petrov
by
7.6k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.