asked 141k views
4 votes
Is 2:4 and 42:84 equivalent?

asked
User Exilit
by
7.8k points

2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

They both equal one half

answered
User Portablejim
by
8.4k points
6 votes

Answer:

Yes.

Explanation:

They are both divisible by 21.

answered
User Axalo
by
8.6k points

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