Answer:
B. f(x) domain: x ≥ 1
f–1(x) range: y ≥ 1
Explanation:
I think your question is missed of key information, allow me to add in and hope it will fit the original one.
Please have a look at the attached photo.
My answer:
Because the two functions are inverse to each other, so we all know that the domain of f(x) will be the range of and the range of f(x) will be the domain of
As can be seen from the attached photo,
f(x) extends to the right of x=1, so its domain is x ≥ 1.
<=> range is y≥ 1.
Therefore, we choose answer B
Hope it will find you well.
(I found this somewhere else)