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If a function f has an inverse function, then fis one-to-one. A) True B) False

If a function f has an inverse function, then fis one-to-one. A) True B) False
asked 218k views
3 votes
If a function f has an inverse function, then fis one-to-one.
A) True
B) False

asked
User Kyle Owens
by
8.4k points

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

true

Explanation:

answered
User Sudhir Panda
by
8.4k points
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