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4 votes
Is log (mn) equivalent to (log m)(log n)? YES OR NO

asked
User SDsolar
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2 Answers

4 votes
no log(nm)=log(n)+log(m). this comes from the exponentiation rule (x^n)(x^m)=x^(n+m)
answered
User Faide
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7.8k points
2 votes

Answer:

NO

Explanation:

log(mn) = log(m) + log(n)

answered
User Chris McKenzie
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7.7k points

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