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2 votes
Is 8d + 4w and 1/2(8d+4w) equivalent

asked
User Jvolkman
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8.6k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:no

Explanation:

Because there is a one half in front of the second one and if the one half wasn’t there,then it would be equivalent bc they are the same number.

answered
User Philio
by
8.4k points

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