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Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4

Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4
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Why is 3/4 of 16 the same as 3×16÷4

asked
User Kiana
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8.3k points

2 Answers

4 votes
That a very interesting question. It’s probably just a coincidence
answered
User PoeHaH
by
7.3k points
3 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

because according to BODMAS

the (of) is the same as multiplication but it has to be done before the divison multiplication addition and subtraction

answered
User Dan Rayson
by
8.5k points
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