asked 39.0k views
3 votes

cos\theta(\theta+\phi)=cos\theta is true only for
\phi equal to
2\pi radians? I would like a proof or well explanation.

asked
User Giskard
by
8.5k points

2 Answers

3 votes

Answer:

Expand the left side using the angle sum identity for cosine:

\cos(\theta+\phi)=\cos\theta\cos\phi-\sin\theta\sin\phicos(θ+ϕ)=cosθcosϕ−sinθsinϕ

This reduces to \cos\thetacosθ if the sine product is 0 and \cos\phi=1cosϕ=1 . This happens when \phi=2n\piϕ=2nπ where nn is any integer; that is, any even multiple of \piπ .

So technically the claim is false; it's true for infinitely many values of \phiϕ . But it is certainly true for \phi=2\piϕ=2π rad.

answered
User Grumbler
by
7.9k points
2 votes

Expand the left side using the angle sum identity for cosine:


\cos(\theta+\phi)=\cos\theta\cos\phi-\sin\theta\sin\phi

This reduces to
\cos\theta if the sine product is 0 and
\cos\phi=1. This happens when
\phi=2n\pi where
n is any integer; that is, any even multiple of
\pi.

So technically the claim is false; it's true for infinitely many values of
\phi. But it is certainly true for
\phi=2\pi rad.

answered
User Ben Hall
by
9.2k points

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