Question

Which of the following explains why f(x) = logam

does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

Answer 1

There’s is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

It’s inverse does not have any x-intercepts

Explanation: