Why the angle-angle criterion is true for all triangles?

Question

asked May 14, 2021 135k views

2 Answers

Grey · Answer 1 · 2021-05-17T06:52:08+0000

Answer:

Because the last angle only has one result left when the two other ones are already decided upon. I think?

Explanation:

I kinda just gusses, but im pretty sure im correct. Fix me in the comments pls and I''l change.