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1.Why were most Europeans in the Middle Ages unable to read or write?

1.Why were most Europeans in the Middle Ages unable to read or write?
asked 170k views
1 vote
1.Why were most Europeans in the Middle Ages unable to
read or write?

asked
User Karaxuna
by
8.9k points

2 Answers

3 votes
that means Europe doesn’t have a very high “literacy rate” idk if that helped but it’s true :) sorry ,,
answered
User Joshpk
by
8.0k points
3 votes

Answer:

Only Very High Class men were educated.

Step-by-step explanation:

answered
User Gilson Cavalcanti
by
7.8k points
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