asked 131k views
0 votes
What is the inverse of y=cos(x-pi/2)​?

1 Answer

1 vote

Answer:

f − 1 ( x ) = arccos ( x ) + π/ 2

Explanation:

y=cos(x-pi/2)

For inverse, interchange the variables and solve for y

f − 1 ( x ) = arccos ( x ) + π/ 2

answered
User Rob Kennedy
by
8.5k points

No related questions found

Welcome to Qamnty — a place to ask, share, and grow together. Join our community and get real answers from real people.