asked 32.8k views
1 vote
Why did France occupy the Ruhr region?

A. Germany failed to pay the reparations on time.
B. France wanted to compete with Britain’s industries.
C. Germany had occupied Paris and France wanted to avenge it.
D. Germany did not demilitarize the Ruhr region

asked
User Yakup
by
9.1k points

2 Answers

3 votes

Answer:

A. Germany failed to pay the reparations on time.

Step-by-step explanation:

plato

answered
User KenE
by
8.3k points
3 votes

Answer:

A. Germany failed to pay the reparations on time.

Step-by-step explanation:

In the wake of economic crises, as the currencies declines, Germany failed to pay what they were supposed to by the Treaty of Versailles. Their request to suspend the payment until the currencies get stable was declined by the Allies, and they were not able to repay what they ought to.

As an indicator that they are serious about resolves of the Treaty of Versailles, France and Belgium invaded the Ruhr region on January 9th of 1923. This region had economic prosperity, factories, and resources, and the invaders wanted to take those in exchange for unpaid debt.

answered
User Adomas Baliuka
by
8.1k points
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