Why was slavery more prevelant in the West Indies and the Southern and Chesapeake colonies?

Question

asked Apr 2, 2022 43.0k views

1 Answer

Related questions

asked Aug 8, 2024 210k views

Ayurvedic ______ may be considered paraprofessional diet is most significant- ____ or ____ therapy uses ______ & ______ home remedies are prevelant

Amir Katz asked Aug 8, 2024

by Amir Katz

8.9k points

1 answer

1 vote

210k views

asked May 4, 2022 206k views

WHY WAS SLAVERY LESS PREVELANT IN NORTHERN COLONIES

Gilad Peleg asked May 4, 2022

by Gilad Peleg

8.1k points

2 answers

1 vote

206k views

asked Aug 6, 2023 147k views

Come up with a list of the 5 most prevelant forms of deviance that you can think of.

Ceisc asked Aug 6, 2023

by Ceisc

7.6k points

1 answer

5 votes

147k views

Ask a Question

Lfk · Answer 1 · 2022-04-06T01:54:10+0000

Answer: The focus on plantation agriculture led to large populations of enslaved Africans in these colonies as well as social stratification between wealthy white plantation owners and poor white and black laborers

Step-by-step explanation:

Why was slavery more prevelant in the West Indies and the Southern and Chesapeake colonies?

Please log in or register to add a comment.

Please log in or register to answer this question.

1 Answer

Please log in or register to add a comment.

Related questions

Categories

Other Questions