asked 143k views
5 votes
URGENT HELP PLS AND THANK U

URGENT HELP PLS AND THANK U-example-1
asked
User Nikiya
by
8.2k points

2 Answers

5 votes
1 because anything times 1 will equal it self so b times 1 will equal 1 there the answer is one. Hope this helps!
answered
User Navinrangar
by
8.4k points
4 votes

Answer: a= 1

Explanation:

a * b = b

Divide by “b” on both sides

a= b/b

“b/b” is equal to 1

a=1

Hope that helps

Lmk if you need a better explanation.

answered
User Marmstrong
by
7.7k points

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