asked 194k views
5 votes
Kant writes: "Let every one be as happy as heaven please or as he can make himself; I will take nothing from him nor even envy him, only I do not wish to contribute anything either to his welfare or to his assistance in distress!

Does Kant agree or disagree with this claim? Why?

A) He agrees with it. Everyone really needs to just help themselves.
B) He disagrees with it. It's better if everyone at least talks about sympathy and good will even if they cheat and betray the rights of man whenever they can
C) He disagrees with it. Anyone who willed that this be a universal law would find that by doing so they deny themselves the very help they will someday need
D) He agrees with it: the categorical imperative is not an excuse for excessive charity

asked
User Tskjetne
by
8.1k points

1 Answer

6 votes

Answer:

B) He disagrees with it. It's better if everyone at least talks about sympathy and good will even if they cheat and betray the rights of man whenever they can

Step-by-step explanation:

He disagrees with this claim because he has heart broken due to cheated by his partner. Due to his heart broken he writes "Let every one be as happy as heaven please or as he can make himself; I will take nothing from him nor even envy him, only I do not wish to contribute anything either to his welfare or to his assistance in distress.'' In this statement he says that he wants that everyone has to be happy and enjoy their lives. He says that he has no feelings for him not even jealousy. He also says that he wanted not to take part in his development or bad conditions.

answered
User Arun NS
by
7.8k points
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